Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam., 2009

(Held on 7-3-2010)

General Knowledge and Law : Solved Paper

PART–I

General Knowledge

1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
Ans : (D)

2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Ans : (A)

3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
Ans : (B)

4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
Ans : (C)

5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
Ans : (B)

6. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Anglo-Indian Community
(D) Parsi Community
Ans : (C)

7. A Supreme Court’s Judge retires at an age of—
(A) 58 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
Ans : (D)

8. Who is the head of the ‘State-Executive’ ?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly
(B) The State Cabinet
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) The Governor
Ans : (D)

9. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu is related with—
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker under Article 105 of the Constitution
Ans : (C)

10. Humanisation and decrimanisation of attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission
Ans : (A)


11. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. 2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution
Ans : (A)

12. Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by—
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission ?
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti
Ans : (B)

14. ‘www’ on the internet stands for—
(A) Words Words Words
(B) Wide Word Words
(C) World Wide Web
(D) When Where Why
Ans : (C)

15. To which of the following companies, the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its ‘Logo’ ?
(A) Pepsico India
(B) TISCO
(C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

16. The Article of the Indian Constitution which automatically become suspended on Proclamation of Emergency is—
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 32
Ans : (B)

17. Which State in India implemented the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ first ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

18. In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans’ ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
Ans : (B)

19. On whose recommendation the financial distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘States’ takes place ?
(A) The Finance Commission
(B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Inter-State Council
Ans : (A)

20. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

21. The Court which has jurisdiction over election disputes under Section 80 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal
Ans : (B)

22. Who can remove Election Commissioner from his office ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (D)

23. In which of the following cases constitutionality of the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, 2006 was challenged ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

24. How many times the emergency has been proclaimed in India on the ground of internal disturbance ?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Never
Ans : (A)

25. In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India ?
(A) 1962
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) Never
Ans : (D)

26. Who appoints the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission in India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Governor of the State
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
Ans : (C)

27. By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged State of the Indian Territory ?
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
(D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (B)

28. Under hich Article of the Constitution of India, Parliament may admit a new State in the Indian Union ?
(A) In Article 1
(B) In Article 2
(C) In Article 3
(D) In Article 4
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State policy under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(B) Right to equal pay for equal work
(C) Promotion of international peace and security
(D) Free and compulsory educationfor children upto fourteen years of age
Ans : (D)

30. The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San- Francisco on—
(A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
(C) January 26, 1946
(D) December 30, 1941
Ans : (A)

31. Where the head office of the United Nations is situated ?
(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) The Hague
Ans : (C)

32. How many members are in the Security Council ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 15
Ans : (D)

33. Which one of the following Article of United Nations Charter is related to the procedure of voting ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

34. Which one of the following is not one of the principal organ of United Nations ?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) International Labour Organization
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (C)

35. Two official languages of the United Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi
(B) English and German
(C) English and Urdu
(D) English and French
Ans : (D)

36. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India have been taken from which one of the following ?
(A) The Constitution of Ireland
(B) The Constitution of United States of America
(C) The Constitution of Australia
(D) The Constitution of Canada
Ans : (A)

37. P’s passport was cancelled by the authority without giving him any reasonable opportunity of being heard which was mandatory. In such case—
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the authority has no obligation to act fairly
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in interest of security of India, no one can challenge the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued
Ans : (A)

38. The maximum period of continuation of emergency under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is—
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
Ans : (A)

39. Which one of the following Schedule was added in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment ?
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI
(C) Schedule XI
(D) Schedule IX
Ans : (C)

40. The procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in—
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5)
(C) Article 125
(D) Article 126
Ans : (A)

41. Participation of workers in management of industries is provided under Indian Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A
(B) In Article 48 A
(C) In Article 43 A
(D) In Article 45
Ans : (C)

42. Article 21-A was added in the Constitution by—
(A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
Ans : (A)

43. Socialist and secular words were added in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) 48th Amendment
Ans : (B)

44. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is not related to the environmental protection ?
(A) Article 48 A
(B) Article 51 A(i)
(C) Article 51 A(g)
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Ans : (B)

45. In International Court of Justice, there are—
(A) President and 15 other members
(B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
Ans : (D)

46. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
(C) 14th July
(D) 26th November
Ans : (B)

47. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is at—
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
(D) Paris
Ans : (C)

48. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between—
(A) The Prime Minister and The President
(B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
(D) Centre and States
Ans : (D)

49. Under which Article of the Constitution the Inter-State Council is constituted ?
(A) Article 254
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 267
Ans : (C)

50. By which Amendment of the Constitution the Service Tribunals were established ?
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
Ans : (D)

PART–II

Law

51. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by—
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

52. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
Ans : (C)

53. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
Ans : (A)

54. A decree may be executed by—
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
Ans : (D)

55. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of ‘Res Judicata’ is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
Ans : (D)

56. Right to lodge a ‘caveat’ has been provided under—
(A) Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) Section 148-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) Section 148-B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Ans : (B)

57. Arrest of a person in execution of a decree has been provided—
(A) Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : (D)

58. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or amend the proceedings to—
(A) Either party
(B) To plaintiff only
(C) To defendant only
(D) To only one defendant, if there are more than one defendant
Ans : (A)

59. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‘Mesne Profit’ ?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
Ans : (D)

60. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with—
(A) Appeal to Supreme Court
(B) Appeal by indigent person
(C) Appeal against orders
(D) Appeal from appellate decrees
Ans : (D)

61. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit—
(A) For partition
(B) For partnership
(C) For possession and mesne profit
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

62. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in—
(A) District Court
(B) The court of lower grade
(C) The court of higher grade
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

63. Pleading has been defined in—
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Ans : (A)

64. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest ?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1
(B) Order 2, Rule 2
(C) Order 1, Rule 8
(D) Order 1, Rule 9
Ans : (C)

65. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(D) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
Ans : (D)

66. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with ‘Revision’ ?
(A) Section 110
(B) Order VI, Rule 13
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 120
Ans : (C)

67. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides a protection to the members of Armed Forces from arrest ?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 45
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 50
Ans : (B)

68. In a summary trial the maximum period of imprisonment is—
(A) Not exceeding three months
(B) Not exceeding six months
(C) Not exceeding one year
(D) Not exceeding two years
Ans : (A)

69. Which of the following are liable under Section 125(1)(d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for payment of maintenance to their parents, who are unable to maintain themselves ?
(A) Sons only
(B) Daughters only
(C) Sons and daughters both
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

70. Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines—
(A) Bailable offence
(B) Non-bailable offence
(C) Cognizable offence
(D) Non-cognizable offence
Ans : (C)

71. Who can tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate only
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate only
(C) Magistrate of the First Class only
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

72. The procedure of trials held before the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of Criminal Procedure under—
(A) Sections 204 to 210
(B) Sections 220 to 224
(C) Sections 225 to 237
(D) Sections 238 to 245
Ans : (C)

73. On being submitted the sentence of death by Court of Sessions, the High Court may—
(A) Confirm the sentence
(B) Annul the conviction
(C) May pass any other sentence warranted by law
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

74. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure defines the term—
(A) Investigation
(B) Charge
(C) Inquiry
(D) Offence
Ans : (A)

75. Which ‘Section’ of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for prosecution for offences against marriage ?
(A) Section 196
(B) Section 197
(C) Section 198
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

76. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that “no statement made by any person to a police officer if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it” ?
(A) Section 161
(B) Section 162
(C) Section 163
(D) Section 164
Ans : (B)

77. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment—
(A) Not exceeding seven years
(B) Exceeding seven years
(C) For life
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

78. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for anticipatory bail ?
(A) Section 436
(B) Section 438
(C) Section 439
(D) Section 437
Ans : (B)

79. In which of the following cases some important principles regarding the defence of unsoundness of mind were propounded ?
(A) Mc’Naughten Case
(B) R. V. Prince
(C) R. V. Dudley and Stephen
(D) Reg V. Govinda
Ans : (A)

80. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘affray’ ?
(A) Section 159
(B) Section 160
(C) Section 161
(D) Section 148
Ans : (A)

81. ‘A’ attempts to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hand into ‘Z’s’ pocket. ‘A’ fails in his attempt as ‘Z’ had nothing in his pocket. What offence ‘A’ has committed ?
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
(C) Mischief
(D) No offence
Ans : (B)

82. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code relates to vicarious liability ?
(A) Section 120A
(B) Section 121
(C) Section 154
(D) Section 159
Ans : (C)

83. Which one of the following cases is a case relating to Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(B) Niharendu Dutta Vs. King Emperor
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor
(D) Kedar Nath Vs. State of West Bengal
Ans : (C)

84. Which one of the following Provisions of the Indian Penal Code defiens ‘Unlawful Assembly’ ?
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 142
(C) Section 146
(D) Section 149
Ans : (A)

85. The maxim ‘Ignorantia facit excusat’ relates to—
(A) Section 75 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

86. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code says, “nothing is an offence which is done by accident” ?
(A) Section 79 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 78 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 80 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

87. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional as violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 303
(C) Section 306
(D) Section 314
Ans : (B)

88. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for abetment to commit suicide ?
(A) Section 306
(B) Section 307
(C) Section 308
(D) Section 309
Ans : (A)

89. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mc’Naughten’s case—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(B) D.P.P. V. Beard—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(C) Basudeo V. State—Section 86 of I.P.C.
(D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal —Section 79 of I.P.C.
Ans : (B)

90. How many kinds of hurts are included under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (D)

91. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for cheating ?
(A) Section 415
(B) Section 417
(C) Section 416
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

92. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable ?
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278
(C) Section 279
(D) Section 280
Ans : (A)

93. In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the offence is punishable ?
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death
(C) Waging war against Government of India
(D) Theft
Ans : (C)

94. Adultery is an offence committed—
(A) With the consent of a married woman
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the consent of her husband
(D) With the consent of a minor girl
Ans : (A)

95. How many exceptions have been provided for the offence of defamation under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

96. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State related to—
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C.
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

97. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence ?
(A) Jaidev Vs. State
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer
Ans : (A)

98. ‘A’ enters ‘Z’ house through a window. Here ‘A’ commits—
(A) Trespass
(B) House trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
(A) R. Vs. Prince
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
Ans : (D)

100. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be, not free consent ?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 89
Ans : (B)

101. Point out incorrect response. The following are modes of abetment—
(A) Instigation
(B) Engaging in conspiracy
(C) Aiding
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

102. In which of the following cases the principles relating to the defence of intoxication were laid down ?
(A) Mc’ Naughten Case
(B) Director of Public Prosecution Vs. Beard
(C) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
(D) R. Vs. Prince
Ans : (B)

103. ‘A’ administers poisonous drug to a woman ‘B’ to cause miscarriage. It is found that ‘B’ was not pregnant. In this case—
(A) ‘A’ is not guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(B) ‘A’ is guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of murder
(D) ‘A’ is guilty of no offence
Ans : (B)

104. Which is the secondary source of Muslim Law under the following ?
(A) Custom
(B) Ijmaa
(C) Qiyas
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

105. Which of the following modifies the application of Muslim Law ?
(A) Shariat Act, 1937
(B) Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939
(C) Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

106. Which of the following Muslim Laws applies in India ?
(A) Muslim Penal Law
(B) Muslim Law of Evidence
(C) Muslim Law of Sales of goods
(D) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986
Ans : (D)

107. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as source of Muslim Law ?
(A) Imam Abu Hanifa
(B) Imam Yusuf
(C) Imam Jafer
(D) Imam Ahmad
Ans : (A)

108. Under Muslim Law, marriage is—
(A) An institution legalising male and female conjugal relations
(B) A civil contract
(C) Sunnet
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

109. Who can be a guardian in minor’s marriage in Sunni Law ?
(A) Mother in the presence of father
(B) Grand-mother in the presence of mother
(C) Maternal uncle in the presence of real uncle
(D) Father
Ans : (D)

110. Under the following which is absolute incapacity for marriage?
(A) Consanguinity
(B) Affinity
(C) Fosterage
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

111. Which is a relative incapacity for marriage ?
(A) Marriage with wife’s sister when wife is alive
(B) Marriage with fifth woman in the presence of four wives
(C) Absence of required number of witnesses at the time of marriage
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

112. Mahar-e-Misl determined on what ground ?
(A) Personal characteristics of wife such as age, extraordinary beauty
(B) Her father’s family social status
(C) Dower paid to women in her husband’s family
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

113. What are the wife’s rights when husband does not pay the dower ?
(A) Refuse consummation
(B) File suit for recovery of dower
(C) Keep possession over dead husband’s property
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

114. In the absence of mother, which of the following females has the first priority to have the custody of a Muslim child ?
(A) Father’s mother
(B) Mother’s mother
(C) Sisters
(D) Maternal aunt
Ans : (B)

115. A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four, if a Muslim marries a fifth wife such a marriage shall be—
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Irregular
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Ans : (C)

116. In Sunni-te Law, the guardian of the minor’s property is—
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Mother’s mother
(D) Father’s father
Ans : (B)

117. After divorce a Muslim woman—
(A) Can not remarry
(B) Can remarry immediately
(C) Can marry only after completion of ‘Iddat’ period
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

118. How many witnesses are necessary in Shia Muslim marriage ?
(A) Two males
(B) One male and two females
(C) No witness is required
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans : (C)

119. In Shia School of Muslim Law the amount of Mehar is—
(A) Not legally fixed
(B) 10 dirhams
(C) 100 dirhams
(D) 500 dirhams
Ans : (A)

120. Doctrine of ‘cy-pres’ is related with—
(A) Marriage
(B) Dower
(C) Gift
(D) Wakfs
Ans : (D)

121. The term ‘Musha’ under Muslim Law means—
(A) Divided property
(B) Joint property
(C) Separate property
(D) Undivided share in property
Ans : (D)

122. A Sunni Muslim performs marriage during the period of ‘Iddat’, the marriage is—
(A) Void
(B) Valid
(C) Irregular
(D) Voidable
Ans : (C)

123. A Muslim mother is entitled to the custody of her female child until she attains—
(A) The age of 7 years
(B) Puberty
(C) Age of 11 years
(D) Age of 15 years
Ans : (B)

124. Dissolution of Muslim marriage by agreement is known as—
(A) Talaq in ahsan
(B) Illa
(C) Zihar
(D) Khula
Ans : (D)

125. Which ‘Wasiyat’ is invalid in Muslim Law ?
(A) Wasiyat made in favour of religious school
(B) Wasiyat made to the killer of legator
(C) Wasiyat made for charity
(D) Wasiyat made to a nonmuslim
Ans : (B)

126. Which of the following is not a ground of divorce under the ‘Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act’, 1939 ?
(A) Absence of husband for four years or more
(B) Imprisonment of husband for two years
(C) Failure of husband to maintain his wife
(D) Impotency of husband
Ans : (B)

127. Which of the following statement is not correct with regard to Muslim Law ?
(A) Nephew gets twice the share of niece
(B) Son gets twice the share of a daughter
(C) Brother gets twice the share of a sister
(D) Widower gets twice the share of a widow
Ans : (A)

128. What is right of ‘Pre-emption’ ?
(A) A right to seek eviction of tenant and get vacant possession
(B) A right to purchase property in preference to other person
(C) A right to presume adversely
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

129. Rule against perpetuity will not be applicable in—
(A) Perpetual transfer for gift
(B) Personal contracts
(C) Vested interest
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

130. Under the Provisions of Transfer of Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested interest—
(A) Upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth
(C) 12 days after his birth
(D) 18 years after his birth
Ans : (A)

131. Which one of the following Sections of the Transfer of Property Act defines “Transfer of Property” ?
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 6
Ans : (C)

132. Which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, defines ‘Notice’ ?
(A) Section 2
(B) Section 3
(C) Section 5
(D) Explanation II of Section 3
Ans : (B)

133. The Privy Council decision in Tilakdhari Lal V. Khedan Lal relates to—
(A) Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act
(B) Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act
(C) Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act
(D) Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act
Ans : (A)

134. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Oral transfer—Section 9 of the Transfer of Property Act
(B) Rule against perpetuity—Section 14 of the Transfer of Property Act
(C) Doctrine of election—Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act
(D) Transfer by Ostensible Owner—Section 40 of the Transfer of Property Act
Ans : (D)

135. Which one of the following Provisions of the Transfer of Property Act relates to ‘usufructuary mortgage’ ?
(A) Section 58 (a)
(B) Section 58 (b)
(C) Section 58 (d)
(D) Section 58 (e)
Ans : (C)

136. Which one of the following cases does not pertain to the doctrine of ‘part performance’ ?
(A) Arrif Vs. Jadu Nath
(B) Prabodh Kumar Vs. Dantmara Tea Co.
(C) Sardar Govind Rao Mahadik Vs. Devi Sahai
(D) Ram Baran Prasad Vs. Ram Mohit Hazra
Ans : (D)

137. Which Provisions of the Transfer of Property Act defines ‘lease’ ?
(A) Section 105
(B) Section 106
(C) Section 107
(D) Section 108
Ans : (A)

138. The provision of fraudulent transfer is given in—
(A) Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(B) Section 50 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(C) Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(D) Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Ans : (D)

139. The gift of future property is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Conditionally void
Ans : (A)

140. Which Section of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 was amended in the year 2002 ?
(A) Section 106
(B) Section 100
(C) Section 108
(D) Section 110
Ans : (A)

141. The rule of lis pendens applies when—
(A) The suit or proceeding in which right to immovable property is indirectly in question
(B) A suit or proceeding in which right to immovable property is pending between two persons and one of them sells the property
(C) The suit or proceeding is pending in a court which does not have jurisdiction
(D) Litigation is not bonafide but collusive
Ans : (B)

142. Transfer of Property Act came into force on—
(A) July 01, 1882
(B) August 01, 1882
(C) September 01, 1882
(D) October 01, 1882
Ans : (A)

143. In the Transfer of property Act, immovable property does not include—
(A) Building
(B) Land
(C) Pond
(D) Standing timber
Ans : (D)

144. Which of the following properties cannot be transferred ?
(A) Share in copyright
(B) Interest in mortgaged property
(C) Right to future maintenance
(D) Immovable property
Ans : (C)

145. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act deals with “effect of holding over a lease” ?
(A) Section 114 A
(B0 Section 115
(C) Section 115 A
(D) Section 116
Ans : (D)

146. In which of the following conditions the lease can be terminated ?
(A) Efflux of time
(B) On termination of lessor’s interest or power
(C) On merger
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

147. The doctrine of “lis pendens” is explained in famous case of —
(A) Bellamy Vs. Sabine
(B) Musahur Sahu Vs. Hakim Lal
(C) Muhammad Shafi Vs. Muhammad Sayed
(D) Tulk V. Moxhay
Ans : (A)

148. Transfer of a right to enjoy the immovable property for a certain time is—
(A) Mortgage
(B) Agreement to lease
(C) Licence
(D) Lease
Ans : (D)

149. In case of gift, the donee dies before acceptance, then—
(A) Gift is voidable
(B) Gift is valid
(C) Gift is void
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

150. The mortgagor’s right to redeem the mortgaged property accrues—
(A) At any time after the mortgage
(B) At any time after the mortgage money has become due
(C) At any time when the mortgagor wants
(D) At any time mortgagee demands the money
Ans : (B)

151. Which one of the following mortgages does not require writing and registration ?
(A) Usufructuary mortgage
(B) Simple mortgage
(C) English mortgage
(D) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
Ans : (D)

152. Which of the following is included in the term ‘living person’ under Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act ?
(A) A company
(B) An association
(C) Body of individuals
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

153. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act will be applicable only when the interest transferred in the property is—
(A) Limited
(B) Absolute
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

154. Which statement is not correct ?
(A) Some facts are relevant but not admissible
(B) Some facts are admissible but not relevant
(C) All relevant facts are admissible
(D) All admissible facts are not relevant
Ans : (C)

155. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with “Doctrine of confirmation by subsequent facts” ?
(A) Section 27
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 102
(D) Section 165
Ans : (A)

156. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is not on ‘shifting of burden of proof’ ?
(A) Section 101
(B) Section 102
(C) Section 105
(D) Section 108
Ans : (A)

157. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is related with doctrine of ‘Res ipsa loquitor’ ?
(A) Section 102
(B) Section 104
(C) Section 106
(D) Section 108
Ans : (C)

158. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act provides for admissibility of secondary evidence ?
(A) Section 60
(B) Section 61
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 65
Ans : (D)

159. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act says “facts admitted need not be proved” ?
(A) Section 18
(B) Section 21
(C) Section 55
(D) Section 58
Ans : (D)

160. Section 113-B, ‘presumption as to dowry death’ was added to the Indian Evidence Act in—
(A) 1986
(B) 1983
(C) 1961
(D) 1962
Ans : (A)

161. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Child witness : Section 118
(B) Dumb witness : Section 120
(C) Hostile witness : Section 154
(D) Expert witness : Section 45
Ans : (B)

162. The illustration that, “A and B are jointly tried for the murder of C. It is proved that A said, ‘B and I murdered C’,” relates—
(A) Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (A)

163. Identification parade is relevant under—
(A) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)

164. Which of the following Sections was amended by the Indian Technology Act, 2000 ?
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 17 of the Indian Evidence act
(C) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)

165. Section 113–A of the Indian Evidence Act was added in—
(A) Year 1982
(B) Year 1983
(C) Year 1988
(D) Year 1980
Ans : (B)

166. The Indian Evidence Act deals with—
(A) ‘presumptio juris’ only
(B) ‘presumptio huminis’ only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

167. Indian Evidence Act deals privilege—
(A) As a right only
(B) As a duty only
(C) As a right and duty both
(D) Neither as a right nor as a duty
Ans : (C)

168. Facts supporting or rebutting the opinion of the experts are relevant under—
(A) Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 51 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (B)

169. Which one of the following cases does not relate to ‘dying declaration’ ?
(A) Queen Emperess V s . Abdullah
(B) Pakala Narayan Swamy Vs. King Emperor
(C) Zafar Vs. State of U.P.
(D) Ratangond Vs. State of Bihar
Ans : (C)

170. Case of Pakala Narayan Swami Vs. King Emperor is related with—
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 21(1) of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
Ans : (C)

171. Who amongst the following is an expert under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) Hand-writing expert
(B) Finger print expert
(C) Ballistics expert
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

172. Under which Section of the Indian Evidence Act the principle of ‘Res Gestae’ is given ?
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 2
(D) Section 15
Ans : (B)

173. Under Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act, the ‘admission’ is—
(A) Written only
(B) Oral only
(C) Both written or oral
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

174. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act relates to accomplice ?
(A) Section 30
(B) Section 133
(C) Section 134
(D) Section 29
Ans : (B)

175. Under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, ‘privilege’ is available to—
(A) Judges
(B) Advocates
(C) Magistrates
(D) Husband and Wife
Ans : (D)

176. In which of the following cases hearsay evidence is not admissible ?
(A) Statement of experts expressed in treaties, if the author is dead or cannot be found
(B) Where eye-witness told the facts to another person, statement of that person
(C) If the statement is of a deceased person, when it related to cause of his death
(D) If the statement is part of the transaction-in-issue
Ans : (B)

177. Which one of the following is not a document under the Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) An inscription on a stone of a building
(B) A photograph
(C) A printout of a message sent through mobile or computer
(D) A knife recovered by police from the possession of an accused and produced in the court
Ans : (D)

178. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides that contents of the document must be proved by primary evidence ?
(A) Section 61
(B) Section 62
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 64
Ans : (D)

179. A Hindu couple having the decree of judicial separation wants to live together—
(A) They can live together
(B) They cannot live together
(C) They can live together after re-marriage
(D) They can live together only after the permission of the court
Ans : (A)

180. ‘A’, a Hindu male, having undivided interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property dies leaving behind two sons and one daughter. The daughter is entitled to the following share in the property—
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/9
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

181. Hindu law does not apply to a person who is a Hindu by—
(A) Birth
(B) Conversion
(C) Re-conversion
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

182. Who is a Hindu among following ?
(A) A legitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female
(B) An illegitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female
(C) An illegitimate child of Hindu male and Parsi female and who was brought up as a Hindu
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

183. ‘Dayabhaga’ is authored by—
(A) Vijnaneshwara
(B) Yagyavalkya
(C) Jimutavahana
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

184. Vijnaneshwara is a famous commentator of—
(A) Manu Smriti
(B) Narad Smriti
(C) Yagyavalkya Smriti
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

185. In regard to a Hindu marriage, ‘Sapinda relationship’ of any person is counted upto—
(A) Fifth generation in the line of ascent through father only
(B) Third generation in the line of ascent through mother only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

186. Pre-martial relation of a spouse is a statutory ground for—
(A) Judicial separation
(B) Divorce
(C) Nullity of marriage
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

187. A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a female child of 13 years of age. The adoption is—
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Void
Ans : (D)

188. Order of succession under the Hindu Succession Act of a male Hindu dying intestate is as follows—
(A) Agnates, Cognates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
(B) Cognates, Agnates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
(C) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Agnates, Cognates
(D) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Cognates, Agnates
Ans : (C)

189. Provisions of Section 24 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 corresponds to—
(A) Section 36 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(B) Section 36 of the Indian Divorce Act, 1869
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

190. Consent theory of divorce was introduced in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in the year—
(A) 1979
(B) 1976
(C) 1964
(D) 1956
Ans : (B)

191. “A person is not disqualified from succeeding to any property on the ground of any disease, defect or deformity” is provided under—
(A) Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(B) Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(C) Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

192. Which one of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with “Restitution of Conjugal Rights” ?
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 9
(C) Section 10
(D) Section 11
Ans : (B)

193. If parties to a Hindu marriage are sapinda to each other, the marriage is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

194. A Hindu married woman of 32 years of age adopts a male child of 8 years with the consent of her husband. The adoption is—
(A) Valid
(B) Not valid
(C) Voidable at the option of husband
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

195. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind two sons, one daughter and widow. His property shall devolve to—
(A) Sons only
(B) Sons and daughter only
(C) Widow only
(D) Sons, daughter and widow all
Ans : (D)

196. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956, who amongst the following is not in Class I heir ?
(A) Father
(B) Mother
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
Ans : (A)

197. Under Mitakshara School Coparcenary interest devolves by—
(A) Representation
(B) Survivorship
(C) Obstructed heritage
(D) Unobstructed heritage
Ans : (B)

198. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following is not entitled to adopt ?
(A) An unmarried person
(B) Husband with the consent of wife
(C) Wife who is divorced
(D) Husband without the consent of wife
Ans : (D)

199. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the provision relating to registration of marriage is given ?
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 5
Ans : (A)

200. Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a petition of divorce by mutual consent ?
(A) Section 13–A
(B) Section 13–B
(C) Section 14
(D) Section 9
Ans : (B)